Hello all! I have been getting into postal history a lot more lately and becoming quite interested in covers and calculating the rates used. I obtained a stack of 1960's registered letters from Britain to Canada that all went by Registered airmail. I cannot figure out how they calculated the rates. Just like back in grade school, I'll show my work and how I'm getting my final math answer and then await one of you to bring out the red pen and correct where my error is lol. Thanks in advance! Attached are photos.
Ok, this letter was sent in 1960. Using the table here: http://www.gbps.org.uk/information/...840-1968.php
It shows the standard inland rate was 3d. On the back of my letter, the cost of a basic inland fee for Registered at £10 is 1sh. Ok so far I think I'm good. If I'm correct in my assumption, this is why the pre-stamped Queen postal card has a default Registration & Postage of both those values (1'3). Good so far?
Next I went here for the overseas airmail rates:http://www.gbps.org.uk/information/...leaflets.php
In 1960, it shows 6d at the top of the PDF as being the "air letter rate" for all countries on the list. My first question here is what this means versus the left column #2) where it has "Letters per 1/2oz". For Canada, it shows 1s3d here. At the top it talks about Enclosures. What does all this mean? My covers look like something was inside so I'm wondering if that is what is meant by Enclosure (letter inside the envelope) versus the older style of just sticking postage on the actual letter itself??
So my error may already be there, although it still doesn't make sense. My cover has an amount of 3s6d if I'm adding correctly (I could also be wrong here but online showed 12d=1sh. I have 1sh + 30d = 3sh + 6d). Is this correct?
When I look at this - assuming it's an airmail rate, it should start off with the sender sticking a 3d stamp if they wanted just the basic £10 coverage (is this correct??).
Let's say they wanted maximum coverage - the back of the cover says 2s8d fee PLUS I assume you add 6d for sending by airmail - this comes to 3s2d. Is that correct? If so, why the extra 4d??
A couple of possibilities I've come up with:
1. The 4d is for over-weight. I can't find a table showing airmail weight additions unless I missed it in the PDF somewhere. The inland table rate link first posted above has over-weight fees for inland, although none are 4d and interestingly, 4.5d is the next step up. I'd figure the fee for airmail would go up by a higher amount.
2. Perhaps the compensation amount is NOT maxed out and was a particular amount and then the over-weight fee added up for the total on the cover?
3. The airmail leaflet PDF is in fact airmail fee of 1s3. If there was a compensation amount adding up to 2s3d, I guess that adds up.
Or option 4 is I'm wrong all over the place. Bear with me as this is new ground and I'm learning the basics. Hopefully my blabbering post makes some sense and I can be steered right. Maybe the post office overcharged our poor sender or they just over-franked it? Ahhhh!!