I recently came across a very nice set of apparently unused zeps (C13-C15), but they are without any gum (NG). The price, as you might expect, is quite a bit lower than Scott. But my question is, how much lower should it be for no gum? Is there a general rule of thumb percentage of Scott that is commonly applied? Any thoughts or reflections on your experience would be appreciated. Thanks.
Just curious, if someone had faked the gum, i.e., regummed them, do you think that that would still run "40-50% of hinged", ... or higher, ... or lower? (I've always collected by the face, so I'm not as interested in the hidden side -- but with something like Zepps, I wouldn't want to hurt my estate, so to speak.
'fraid my question might have sounded like I was considering re-gumming -- not at all. Just curious whether such a person's would be financially penalized for their treachery, or rewarded for their effort. (Though, I'm guessing that the fake gum could always be soaked off, so at least they wouldn't have caused any permanent damage.)
Regumming can be used to hide repaired thins, which in turn may be detectable by a dip in watermark fluid. So depending on appearance, regummed might be at the same price as no gum but could be figured for much less as a faulty no gum stamp.
Regummed stamps are valued the same as a no-gum stamp. I always soak fake gum off my regummed stamps no matter now "expertly" the fraud attempt appears.
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Posted 04/07/2019 10:39 pm
